What is wrong with the expression 'most perfect', and the adjective-forms 'rounder' and 'squarer'?












0














Here is an excerpt from the textbook High School English Grammar & Composition, by Wren & Martin (2005 edition by S. Chand, New Delhi):




Certain adjectives do not really admit of comparison because their
meaning is already superlative; as,



Unique, Ideal, Perfect, Complete, Universal, Entire, Extreme, Chief, Square, Round



Do not therefore say:



Most Unique, quite unique, chiefest, extremest



But we still say, for instance:



This is the most perfect specimen I have seen.




My questions:




  1. Isn't the last example contradicting (by using most perfect) what they described above? What are they trying to imply here? What should I take away from it?


  2. I have heard the expression 'quite unique' at-least in informal English. Is it incorrect in formal English?



  3. I have seen the words 'squarer', 'squarest' and 'rounder',
    'roundest' in the dictionary. So what's wrong with using them?



    Suppose a child tries to draw a circle and it doesn't turn out to be
    a perfect circle, so they make another attempt and the circle they
    draw this time is better than the one they drew before; so you tell
    them that this one is rounder.












share|improve this question




















  • 5




    "Rounder" and "squarer" are certainly valid words, and perfectly meaningful in the proper context. In general, the excerpt is prescriptivist nonsense -- theoretical minutiae that, at most, applies only to formal texts.
    – Hot Licks
    Mar 3 '16 at 1:35










  • @HotLicks Yeah actually I am preparing for a test, and I need to understand the correct usage (and about common errors) of parts of speech in formal English.
    – Solace
    Mar 3 '16 at 2:18






  • 2




    The P-ists claim that you cannot take at term such as "square" or "unique" or "perfect", which presumably indicates an extreme already, and then apply terms such as "more" or "quite" to it (or append something like "-er"), to indicate an even more extreme (sic) situation. Of course, they regard Thomas Jefferson as a hack who could barely speak the language.
    – Hot Licks
    Mar 3 '16 at 3:40
















0














Here is an excerpt from the textbook High School English Grammar & Composition, by Wren & Martin (2005 edition by S. Chand, New Delhi):




Certain adjectives do not really admit of comparison because their
meaning is already superlative; as,



Unique, Ideal, Perfect, Complete, Universal, Entire, Extreme, Chief, Square, Round



Do not therefore say:



Most Unique, quite unique, chiefest, extremest



But we still say, for instance:



This is the most perfect specimen I have seen.




My questions:




  1. Isn't the last example contradicting (by using most perfect) what they described above? What are they trying to imply here? What should I take away from it?


  2. I have heard the expression 'quite unique' at-least in informal English. Is it incorrect in formal English?



  3. I have seen the words 'squarer', 'squarest' and 'rounder',
    'roundest' in the dictionary. So what's wrong with using them?



    Suppose a child tries to draw a circle and it doesn't turn out to be
    a perfect circle, so they make another attempt and the circle they
    draw this time is better than the one they drew before; so you tell
    them that this one is rounder.












share|improve this question




















  • 5




    "Rounder" and "squarer" are certainly valid words, and perfectly meaningful in the proper context. In general, the excerpt is prescriptivist nonsense -- theoretical minutiae that, at most, applies only to formal texts.
    – Hot Licks
    Mar 3 '16 at 1:35










  • @HotLicks Yeah actually I am preparing for a test, and I need to understand the correct usage (and about common errors) of parts of speech in formal English.
    – Solace
    Mar 3 '16 at 2:18






  • 2




    The P-ists claim that you cannot take at term such as "square" or "unique" or "perfect", which presumably indicates an extreme already, and then apply terms such as "more" or "quite" to it (or append something like "-er"), to indicate an even more extreme (sic) situation. Of course, they regard Thomas Jefferson as a hack who could barely speak the language.
    – Hot Licks
    Mar 3 '16 at 3:40














0












0








0


1





Here is an excerpt from the textbook High School English Grammar & Composition, by Wren & Martin (2005 edition by S. Chand, New Delhi):




Certain adjectives do not really admit of comparison because their
meaning is already superlative; as,



Unique, Ideal, Perfect, Complete, Universal, Entire, Extreme, Chief, Square, Round



Do not therefore say:



Most Unique, quite unique, chiefest, extremest



But we still say, for instance:



This is the most perfect specimen I have seen.




My questions:




  1. Isn't the last example contradicting (by using most perfect) what they described above? What are they trying to imply here? What should I take away from it?


  2. I have heard the expression 'quite unique' at-least in informal English. Is it incorrect in formal English?



  3. I have seen the words 'squarer', 'squarest' and 'rounder',
    'roundest' in the dictionary. So what's wrong with using them?



    Suppose a child tries to draw a circle and it doesn't turn out to be
    a perfect circle, so they make another attempt and the circle they
    draw this time is better than the one they drew before; so you tell
    them that this one is rounder.












share|improve this question















Here is an excerpt from the textbook High School English Grammar & Composition, by Wren & Martin (2005 edition by S. Chand, New Delhi):




Certain adjectives do not really admit of comparison because their
meaning is already superlative; as,



Unique, Ideal, Perfect, Complete, Universal, Entire, Extreme, Chief, Square, Round



Do not therefore say:



Most Unique, quite unique, chiefest, extremest



But we still say, for instance:



This is the most perfect specimen I have seen.




My questions:




  1. Isn't the last example contradicting (by using most perfect) what they described above? What are they trying to imply here? What should I take away from it?


  2. I have heard the expression 'quite unique' at-least in informal English. Is it incorrect in formal English?



  3. I have seen the words 'squarer', 'squarest' and 'rounder',
    'roundest' in the dictionary. So what's wrong with using them?



    Suppose a child tries to draw a circle and it doesn't turn out to be
    a perfect circle, so they make another attempt and the circle they
    draw this time is better than the one they drew before; so you tell
    them that this one is rounder.









grammar adjectives vocabulary gradability






share|improve this question















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share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited Mar 3 '16 at 20:21









choster

36.3k1483133




36.3k1483133










asked Mar 3 '16 at 1:23









Solace

4242816




4242816








  • 5




    "Rounder" and "squarer" are certainly valid words, and perfectly meaningful in the proper context. In general, the excerpt is prescriptivist nonsense -- theoretical minutiae that, at most, applies only to formal texts.
    – Hot Licks
    Mar 3 '16 at 1:35










  • @HotLicks Yeah actually I am preparing for a test, and I need to understand the correct usage (and about common errors) of parts of speech in formal English.
    – Solace
    Mar 3 '16 at 2:18






  • 2




    The P-ists claim that you cannot take at term such as "square" or "unique" or "perfect", which presumably indicates an extreme already, and then apply terms such as "more" or "quite" to it (or append something like "-er"), to indicate an even more extreme (sic) situation. Of course, they regard Thomas Jefferson as a hack who could barely speak the language.
    – Hot Licks
    Mar 3 '16 at 3:40














  • 5




    "Rounder" and "squarer" are certainly valid words, and perfectly meaningful in the proper context. In general, the excerpt is prescriptivist nonsense -- theoretical minutiae that, at most, applies only to formal texts.
    – Hot Licks
    Mar 3 '16 at 1:35










  • @HotLicks Yeah actually I am preparing for a test, and I need to understand the correct usage (and about common errors) of parts of speech in formal English.
    – Solace
    Mar 3 '16 at 2:18






  • 2




    The P-ists claim that you cannot take at term such as "square" or "unique" or "perfect", which presumably indicates an extreme already, and then apply terms such as "more" or "quite" to it (or append something like "-er"), to indicate an even more extreme (sic) situation. Of course, they regard Thomas Jefferson as a hack who could barely speak the language.
    – Hot Licks
    Mar 3 '16 at 3:40








5




5




"Rounder" and "squarer" are certainly valid words, and perfectly meaningful in the proper context. In general, the excerpt is prescriptivist nonsense -- theoretical minutiae that, at most, applies only to formal texts.
– Hot Licks
Mar 3 '16 at 1:35




"Rounder" and "squarer" are certainly valid words, and perfectly meaningful in the proper context. In general, the excerpt is prescriptivist nonsense -- theoretical minutiae that, at most, applies only to formal texts.
– Hot Licks
Mar 3 '16 at 1:35












@HotLicks Yeah actually I am preparing for a test, and I need to understand the correct usage (and about common errors) of parts of speech in formal English.
– Solace
Mar 3 '16 at 2:18




@HotLicks Yeah actually I am preparing for a test, and I need to understand the correct usage (and about common errors) of parts of speech in formal English.
– Solace
Mar 3 '16 at 2:18




2




2




The P-ists claim that you cannot take at term such as "square" or "unique" or "perfect", which presumably indicates an extreme already, and then apply terms such as "more" or "quite" to it (or append something like "-er"), to indicate an even more extreme (sic) situation. Of course, they regard Thomas Jefferson as a hack who could barely speak the language.
– Hot Licks
Mar 3 '16 at 3:40




The P-ists claim that you cannot take at term such as "square" or "unique" or "perfect", which presumably indicates an extreme already, and then apply terms such as "more" or "quite" to it (or append something like "-er"), to indicate an even more extreme (sic) situation. Of course, they regard Thomas Jefferson as a hack who could barely speak the language.
– Hot Licks
Mar 3 '16 at 3:40










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















1














If we take square as the example, if it has four equal-length sides and 90 degree corners, it is a square. If it doesn't have those, it isn't a square, so there is nothing between the states of square/not square to be graded. Similary, something is either round or it isn't round, perfect or imperfect, unique or not unique, etc.



The confusion arises because in normal, informal usage comparatives like squarer or rounder are used in the sense of "closer to being square/round" simply because it is by far the easiest way to describe that situation.






share|improve this answer

















  • 2




    But the machinists and physicists among us will tell you that, in the real world, there is no such thing as a perfect circle. Therefore, by your rules, you cannot say that that triangle "button" to the left is inside a "circle", but you must say it's inside an "irregular ovoid shape" or some such.
    – Hot Licks
    Mar 3 '16 at 18:15










  • Do yo think that those same machinists and physicists, with all their ovoids, know what a circle is? If they do, it doesn't really matter whether they can draw one or not.
    – Roaring Fish
    Mar 4 '16 at 2:07










  • You're saying that there's no such thing as a circle -- it can't exist.
    – Hot Licks
    Mar 4 '16 at 2:09










  • I am asking you why it matters whether it exists or not.
    – Roaring Fish
    Mar 4 '16 at 2:11






  • 1




    Why do I need to see one? The universe is full of things that I have never seen, but I still know what they are. Words describe ideas, not 'things', and I do actually know what the idea of a circle is. It is "a round plane figure whose boundary (the circumference) consists of points equidistant from a fixed point (the centre)." A dictionary can tell me that, so there is no need to see one.
    – Roaring Fish
    Mar 4 '16 at 3:07



















3














Language theorists, long after languages are formed, attempt to invent rules for how the languages can be used.



Many millennia back, Orc, the guy who invented language in the first place, was teaching the first language class. He took a stick and drew a figure in the dust, pointed to it, and said "rog". Then he drew another figure, pointed to it and said "skar". Since geometry would not be invented for another 6 thousand years, the figures likely were not certifiably "round" and "square", even though those two words derived from his lecture.



But now certain language theorists tell us that something is not "round" unless it is "perfectly" round, and hence something cannot be "more round" than something else. Likewise, even though the US Constitution says otherwise, nothing, not even a union of states, can be "more perfect".



There is some merit to this rigidly structured view of language, in that noticing when language appears to be being used "illogically" helps one learn to write better and more clearly. Being aware of the rules is quite useful. (For this reason it especially makes sense to introduce ESL students to this view, since it serves as a "balance" to the effort to rapidly absorb idiomatic speech.) But adhering rigidly to such rules often flies in the face of common sense, and can be quite stifling of expressive speech and writing.



It suffices to say that one should use care when using a term such as "most unique", to be sure that one has not been carried overboard by the overuse of superlatives. And such terms as "chiefest" and "extremest" are ill-advised simply because those superlative forms are not idiomatic.






share|improve this answer

















  • 2




    You are the bestest answerer.
    – Dewi Morgan
    Mar 3 '16 at 22:21



















0














I have always believed that “more perfect’ means “closer to perfection” and is thus actually less than perfect.






share|improve this answer








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Tony Wells is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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  • Right—the famous instance "a more perfect union" surely means "a more [nearly] perfect union."
    – Sven Yargs
    12 hours ago











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3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes








3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1














If we take square as the example, if it has four equal-length sides and 90 degree corners, it is a square. If it doesn't have those, it isn't a square, so there is nothing between the states of square/not square to be graded. Similary, something is either round or it isn't round, perfect or imperfect, unique or not unique, etc.



The confusion arises because in normal, informal usage comparatives like squarer or rounder are used in the sense of "closer to being square/round" simply because it is by far the easiest way to describe that situation.






share|improve this answer

















  • 2




    But the machinists and physicists among us will tell you that, in the real world, there is no such thing as a perfect circle. Therefore, by your rules, you cannot say that that triangle "button" to the left is inside a "circle", but you must say it's inside an "irregular ovoid shape" or some such.
    – Hot Licks
    Mar 3 '16 at 18:15










  • Do yo think that those same machinists and physicists, with all their ovoids, know what a circle is? If they do, it doesn't really matter whether they can draw one or not.
    – Roaring Fish
    Mar 4 '16 at 2:07










  • You're saying that there's no such thing as a circle -- it can't exist.
    – Hot Licks
    Mar 4 '16 at 2:09










  • I am asking you why it matters whether it exists or not.
    – Roaring Fish
    Mar 4 '16 at 2:11






  • 1




    Why do I need to see one? The universe is full of things that I have never seen, but I still know what they are. Words describe ideas, not 'things', and I do actually know what the idea of a circle is. It is "a round plane figure whose boundary (the circumference) consists of points equidistant from a fixed point (the centre)." A dictionary can tell me that, so there is no need to see one.
    – Roaring Fish
    Mar 4 '16 at 3:07
















1














If we take square as the example, if it has four equal-length sides and 90 degree corners, it is a square. If it doesn't have those, it isn't a square, so there is nothing between the states of square/not square to be graded. Similary, something is either round or it isn't round, perfect or imperfect, unique or not unique, etc.



The confusion arises because in normal, informal usage comparatives like squarer or rounder are used in the sense of "closer to being square/round" simply because it is by far the easiest way to describe that situation.






share|improve this answer

















  • 2




    But the machinists and physicists among us will tell you that, in the real world, there is no such thing as a perfect circle. Therefore, by your rules, you cannot say that that triangle "button" to the left is inside a "circle", but you must say it's inside an "irregular ovoid shape" or some such.
    – Hot Licks
    Mar 3 '16 at 18:15










  • Do yo think that those same machinists and physicists, with all their ovoids, know what a circle is? If they do, it doesn't really matter whether they can draw one or not.
    – Roaring Fish
    Mar 4 '16 at 2:07










  • You're saying that there's no such thing as a circle -- it can't exist.
    – Hot Licks
    Mar 4 '16 at 2:09










  • I am asking you why it matters whether it exists or not.
    – Roaring Fish
    Mar 4 '16 at 2:11






  • 1




    Why do I need to see one? The universe is full of things that I have never seen, but I still know what they are. Words describe ideas, not 'things', and I do actually know what the idea of a circle is. It is "a round plane figure whose boundary (the circumference) consists of points equidistant from a fixed point (the centre)." A dictionary can tell me that, so there is no need to see one.
    – Roaring Fish
    Mar 4 '16 at 3:07














1












1








1






If we take square as the example, if it has four equal-length sides and 90 degree corners, it is a square. If it doesn't have those, it isn't a square, so there is nothing between the states of square/not square to be graded. Similary, something is either round or it isn't round, perfect or imperfect, unique or not unique, etc.



The confusion arises because in normal, informal usage comparatives like squarer or rounder are used in the sense of "closer to being square/round" simply because it is by far the easiest way to describe that situation.






share|improve this answer












If we take square as the example, if it has four equal-length sides and 90 degree corners, it is a square. If it doesn't have those, it isn't a square, so there is nothing between the states of square/not square to be graded. Similary, something is either round or it isn't round, perfect or imperfect, unique or not unique, etc.



The confusion arises because in normal, informal usage comparatives like squarer or rounder are used in the sense of "closer to being square/round" simply because it is by far the easiest way to describe that situation.







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered Mar 3 '16 at 16:20









Roaring Fish

14.2k12353




14.2k12353








  • 2




    But the machinists and physicists among us will tell you that, in the real world, there is no such thing as a perfect circle. Therefore, by your rules, you cannot say that that triangle "button" to the left is inside a "circle", but you must say it's inside an "irregular ovoid shape" or some such.
    – Hot Licks
    Mar 3 '16 at 18:15










  • Do yo think that those same machinists and physicists, with all their ovoids, know what a circle is? If they do, it doesn't really matter whether they can draw one or not.
    – Roaring Fish
    Mar 4 '16 at 2:07










  • You're saying that there's no such thing as a circle -- it can't exist.
    – Hot Licks
    Mar 4 '16 at 2:09










  • I am asking you why it matters whether it exists or not.
    – Roaring Fish
    Mar 4 '16 at 2:11






  • 1




    Why do I need to see one? The universe is full of things that I have never seen, but I still know what they are. Words describe ideas, not 'things', and I do actually know what the idea of a circle is. It is "a round plane figure whose boundary (the circumference) consists of points equidistant from a fixed point (the centre)." A dictionary can tell me that, so there is no need to see one.
    – Roaring Fish
    Mar 4 '16 at 3:07














  • 2




    But the machinists and physicists among us will tell you that, in the real world, there is no such thing as a perfect circle. Therefore, by your rules, you cannot say that that triangle "button" to the left is inside a "circle", but you must say it's inside an "irregular ovoid shape" or some such.
    – Hot Licks
    Mar 3 '16 at 18:15










  • Do yo think that those same machinists and physicists, with all their ovoids, know what a circle is? If they do, it doesn't really matter whether they can draw one or not.
    – Roaring Fish
    Mar 4 '16 at 2:07










  • You're saying that there's no such thing as a circle -- it can't exist.
    – Hot Licks
    Mar 4 '16 at 2:09










  • I am asking you why it matters whether it exists or not.
    – Roaring Fish
    Mar 4 '16 at 2:11






  • 1




    Why do I need to see one? The universe is full of things that I have never seen, but I still know what they are. Words describe ideas, not 'things', and I do actually know what the idea of a circle is. It is "a round plane figure whose boundary (the circumference) consists of points equidistant from a fixed point (the centre)." A dictionary can tell me that, so there is no need to see one.
    – Roaring Fish
    Mar 4 '16 at 3:07








2




2




But the machinists and physicists among us will tell you that, in the real world, there is no such thing as a perfect circle. Therefore, by your rules, you cannot say that that triangle "button" to the left is inside a "circle", but you must say it's inside an "irregular ovoid shape" or some such.
– Hot Licks
Mar 3 '16 at 18:15




But the machinists and physicists among us will tell you that, in the real world, there is no such thing as a perfect circle. Therefore, by your rules, you cannot say that that triangle "button" to the left is inside a "circle", but you must say it's inside an "irregular ovoid shape" or some such.
– Hot Licks
Mar 3 '16 at 18:15












Do yo think that those same machinists and physicists, with all their ovoids, know what a circle is? If they do, it doesn't really matter whether they can draw one or not.
– Roaring Fish
Mar 4 '16 at 2:07




Do yo think that those same machinists and physicists, with all their ovoids, know what a circle is? If they do, it doesn't really matter whether they can draw one or not.
– Roaring Fish
Mar 4 '16 at 2:07












You're saying that there's no such thing as a circle -- it can't exist.
– Hot Licks
Mar 4 '16 at 2:09




You're saying that there's no such thing as a circle -- it can't exist.
– Hot Licks
Mar 4 '16 at 2:09












I am asking you why it matters whether it exists or not.
– Roaring Fish
Mar 4 '16 at 2:11




I am asking you why it matters whether it exists or not.
– Roaring Fish
Mar 4 '16 at 2:11




1




1




Why do I need to see one? The universe is full of things that I have never seen, but I still know what they are. Words describe ideas, not 'things', and I do actually know what the idea of a circle is. It is "a round plane figure whose boundary (the circumference) consists of points equidistant from a fixed point (the centre)." A dictionary can tell me that, so there is no need to see one.
– Roaring Fish
Mar 4 '16 at 3:07




Why do I need to see one? The universe is full of things that I have never seen, but I still know what they are. Words describe ideas, not 'things', and I do actually know what the idea of a circle is. It is "a round plane figure whose boundary (the circumference) consists of points equidistant from a fixed point (the centre)." A dictionary can tell me that, so there is no need to see one.
– Roaring Fish
Mar 4 '16 at 3:07













3














Language theorists, long after languages are formed, attempt to invent rules for how the languages can be used.



Many millennia back, Orc, the guy who invented language in the first place, was teaching the first language class. He took a stick and drew a figure in the dust, pointed to it, and said "rog". Then he drew another figure, pointed to it and said "skar". Since geometry would not be invented for another 6 thousand years, the figures likely were not certifiably "round" and "square", even though those two words derived from his lecture.



But now certain language theorists tell us that something is not "round" unless it is "perfectly" round, and hence something cannot be "more round" than something else. Likewise, even though the US Constitution says otherwise, nothing, not even a union of states, can be "more perfect".



There is some merit to this rigidly structured view of language, in that noticing when language appears to be being used "illogically" helps one learn to write better and more clearly. Being aware of the rules is quite useful. (For this reason it especially makes sense to introduce ESL students to this view, since it serves as a "balance" to the effort to rapidly absorb idiomatic speech.) But adhering rigidly to such rules often flies in the face of common sense, and can be quite stifling of expressive speech and writing.



It suffices to say that one should use care when using a term such as "most unique", to be sure that one has not been carried overboard by the overuse of superlatives. And such terms as "chiefest" and "extremest" are ill-advised simply because those superlative forms are not idiomatic.






share|improve this answer

















  • 2




    You are the bestest answerer.
    – Dewi Morgan
    Mar 3 '16 at 22:21
















3














Language theorists, long after languages are formed, attempt to invent rules for how the languages can be used.



Many millennia back, Orc, the guy who invented language in the first place, was teaching the first language class. He took a stick and drew a figure in the dust, pointed to it, and said "rog". Then he drew another figure, pointed to it and said "skar". Since geometry would not be invented for another 6 thousand years, the figures likely were not certifiably "round" and "square", even though those two words derived from his lecture.



But now certain language theorists tell us that something is not "round" unless it is "perfectly" round, and hence something cannot be "more round" than something else. Likewise, even though the US Constitution says otherwise, nothing, not even a union of states, can be "more perfect".



There is some merit to this rigidly structured view of language, in that noticing when language appears to be being used "illogically" helps one learn to write better and more clearly. Being aware of the rules is quite useful. (For this reason it especially makes sense to introduce ESL students to this view, since it serves as a "balance" to the effort to rapidly absorb idiomatic speech.) But adhering rigidly to such rules often flies in the face of common sense, and can be quite stifling of expressive speech and writing.



It suffices to say that one should use care when using a term such as "most unique", to be sure that one has not been carried overboard by the overuse of superlatives. And such terms as "chiefest" and "extremest" are ill-advised simply because those superlative forms are not idiomatic.






share|improve this answer

















  • 2




    You are the bestest answerer.
    – Dewi Morgan
    Mar 3 '16 at 22:21














3












3








3






Language theorists, long after languages are formed, attempt to invent rules for how the languages can be used.



Many millennia back, Orc, the guy who invented language in the first place, was teaching the first language class. He took a stick and drew a figure in the dust, pointed to it, and said "rog". Then he drew another figure, pointed to it and said "skar". Since geometry would not be invented for another 6 thousand years, the figures likely were not certifiably "round" and "square", even though those two words derived from his lecture.



But now certain language theorists tell us that something is not "round" unless it is "perfectly" round, and hence something cannot be "more round" than something else. Likewise, even though the US Constitution says otherwise, nothing, not even a union of states, can be "more perfect".



There is some merit to this rigidly structured view of language, in that noticing when language appears to be being used "illogically" helps one learn to write better and more clearly. Being aware of the rules is quite useful. (For this reason it especially makes sense to introduce ESL students to this view, since it serves as a "balance" to the effort to rapidly absorb idiomatic speech.) But adhering rigidly to such rules often flies in the face of common sense, and can be quite stifling of expressive speech and writing.



It suffices to say that one should use care when using a term such as "most unique", to be sure that one has not been carried overboard by the overuse of superlatives. And such terms as "chiefest" and "extremest" are ill-advised simply because those superlative forms are not idiomatic.






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Language theorists, long after languages are formed, attempt to invent rules for how the languages can be used.



Many millennia back, Orc, the guy who invented language in the first place, was teaching the first language class. He took a stick and drew a figure in the dust, pointed to it, and said "rog". Then he drew another figure, pointed to it and said "skar". Since geometry would not be invented for another 6 thousand years, the figures likely were not certifiably "round" and "square", even though those two words derived from his lecture.



But now certain language theorists tell us that something is not "round" unless it is "perfectly" round, and hence something cannot be "more round" than something else. Likewise, even though the US Constitution says otherwise, nothing, not even a union of states, can be "more perfect".



There is some merit to this rigidly structured view of language, in that noticing when language appears to be being used "illogically" helps one learn to write better and more clearly. Being aware of the rules is quite useful. (For this reason it especially makes sense to introduce ESL students to this view, since it serves as a "balance" to the effort to rapidly absorb idiomatic speech.) But adhering rigidly to such rules often flies in the face of common sense, and can be quite stifling of expressive speech and writing.



It suffices to say that one should use care when using a term such as "most unique", to be sure that one has not been carried overboard by the overuse of superlatives. And such terms as "chiefest" and "extremest" are ill-advised simply because those superlative forms are not idiomatic.







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answered Mar 3 '16 at 19:06









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I have always believed that “more perfect’ means “closer to perfection” and is thus actually less than perfect.






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  • Right—the famous instance "a more perfect union" surely means "a more [nearly] perfect union."
    – Sven Yargs
    12 hours ago
















0














I have always believed that “more perfect’ means “closer to perfection” and is thus actually less than perfect.






share|improve this answer








New contributor




Tony Wells is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.


















  • Right—the famous instance "a more perfect union" surely means "a more [nearly] perfect union."
    – Sven Yargs
    12 hours ago














0












0








0






I have always believed that “more perfect’ means “closer to perfection” and is thus actually less than perfect.






share|improve this answer








New contributor




Tony Wells is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









I have always believed that “more perfect’ means “closer to perfection” and is thus actually less than perfect.







share|improve this answer








New contributor




Tony Wells is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|improve this answer



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Tony Wells is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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answered 13 hours ago









Tony Wells

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Tony Wells is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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New contributor





Tony Wells is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






Tony Wells is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.












  • Right—the famous instance "a more perfect union" surely means "a more [nearly] perfect union."
    – Sven Yargs
    12 hours ago


















  • Right—the famous instance "a more perfect union" surely means "a more [nearly] perfect union."
    – Sven Yargs
    12 hours ago
















Right—the famous instance "a more perfect union" surely means "a more [nearly] perfect union."
– Sven Yargs
12 hours ago




Right—the famous instance "a more perfect union" surely means "a more [nearly] perfect union."
– Sven Yargs
12 hours ago


















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