What is the definition of “solipsized?”












3














It seems like only "Lolita" uses this word.



According to Google, solipsism is "the view or theory that the self is all that can be known to exist." From this definition, I conclude that for one to be solipsized means that they only acknowledge their own existence.










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    What's the question here? You've provided a definition and an interpretation of that definition. What more are you looking for?
    – Nick2253
    Nov 15 '14 at 0:42
















3














It seems like only "Lolita" uses this word.



According to Google, solipsism is "the view or theory that the self is all that can be known to exist." From this definition, I conclude that for one to be solipsized means that they only acknowledge their own existence.










share|improve this question




















  • 1




    What's the question here? You've provided a definition and an interpretation of that definition. What more are you looking for?
    – Nick2253
    Nov 15 '14 at 0:42














3












3








3


1





It seems like only "Lolita" uses this word.



According to Google, solipsism is "the view or theory that the self is all that can be known to exist." From this definition, I conclude that for one to be solipsized means that they only acknowledge their own existence.










share|improve this question















It seems like only "Lolita" uses this word.



According to Google, solipsism is "the view or theory that the self is all that can be known to exist." From this definition, I conclude that for one to be solipsized means that they only acknowledge their own existence.







meaning literature lolita






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edited Sep 13 '17 at 18:07









Mari-Lou A

61.7k55217455




61.7k55217455










asked Nov 15 '14 at 0:34









moonman239

158129




158129








  • 1




    What's the question here? You've provided a definition and an interpretation of that definition. What more are you looking for?
    – Nick2253
    Nov 15 '14 at 0:42














  • 1




    What's the question here? You've provided a definition and an interpretation of that definition. What more are you looking for?
    – Nick2253
    Nov 15 '14 at 0:42








1




1




What's the question here? You've provided a definition and an interpretation of that definition. What more are you looking for?
– Nick2253
Nov 15 '14 at 0:42




What's the question here? You've provided a definition and an interpretation of that definition. What more are you looking for?
– Nick2253
Nov 15 '14 at 0:42










4 Answers
4






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oldest

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1














It's just a quirk of Nabokov's phrasing that the most accurate rendition in English relies on ad-hoc "verbification" to succinctly capture the sense more easily expressed in Russian.



From Bloom, 1993 - selection of literary criticism focusing on Vladimir Nabokov's controversial character...




It is a measure of Humbert's perspicacity that he is sufficiently aware of what he is doing to say that "Lolita had been safely solipsized";

the Russian translation makes the point even more bluntly: "Real'nost' Lolity byla blagopoluchno otmenena," which means, literally, "Lolita's reality was successfully cancelled"




I assume the intended sense is "Since Lolita isn't real, I can do what I like with her". It's a rather obscure philosophical context, so it's no surprise few Anglophones have found reason to promote this particular "credible, but unlikely" verb usage.



In practice (and somewhat less metaphysically) we tend to base this kind of rationalization on "Since [victim] isn't human, I can do what I like to her/him/it" (we dehumanize the victim, rather than philosophically rationalize her into complete "non-existence").






share|improve this answer



















  • 1




    Original Russian? Lolita was written in English.
    – user85798
    Apr 29 '16 at 18:26










  • @bwv869: My bad - you're quite right. But since Nabokov was a Russian speaker by birth, wrote many earlier novels in Russian, and presumably primarily tended to think in Russian, I think the point I was making is still substantially valid. So I've just edited out the misleading reference to "Original Russian" - thanks for flagging it up.
    – FumbleFingers
    May 10 '16 at 15:47



















1














I think there is a simpler answer.



Humbert wanted Lolita to withdraw from any interest in the outside world and instead become more interested in her own needs and wants. This way Humbert would not have to worry about interference with his "sexual dance" from any authorities and the like, who they would come into occasional contact with as they traveled.



Solipsists were known to question whether anything outside the observer's mind really existed. This invariably led to the elevation of the person him/herself and not of those in the world outside. Solipsizing, a word the Russian writer Nabokov and lover of the English language apparently formed himself, seems to be a method used by Humbert of drawing Lolita into herself so that the protagonist could subsequently have even more control of her limited external experiences and hence participate in his "marriage" rather safely.






share|improve this answer





























    0














    It might be a struggle to get from solipsism, -- as you say the belief that only the self can be known to exist, -- to a useful active verbal form as suggested by solipsized.



    You are right that the word is rare and most references seem to be to Lolita. In this context, soplipsized means to make something a part of the self. The protagonist is faced by overwhelming forces apparently external to himself, their existence beyond his control, and through a process of solipsizing (however that is achieved: I've not read the book, but can guess) he makes them a part of himself, and so apparently more controllable.



    So here it is used to mean, roughly, "to make a part of the self", with the secondary implication, by its etymology, that this is the authentic mode of a thing existing.






    share|improve this answer





























      0














      I think we have it here: Lolita has been made unreal to Humbert. At the start of chapter 14, 2 pages after "Lolita had been safely solipsized" Humbert goes on to say "Lolita was safe - and I was safe. What I had madly possessed was not she, but my own creation, another, fanciful Lolita - perhaps, more real than Lolita; overlapping, encasing her; floating between me and her, and having no will, no consciousness - indeed, no life of her own."






      share|improve this answer





















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        4 Answers
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        4 Answers
        4






        active

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        1














        It's just a quirk of Nabokov's phrasing that the most accurate rendition in English relies on ad-hoc "verbification" to succinctly capture the sense more easily expressed in Russian.



        From Bloom, 1993 - selection of literary criticism focusing on Vladimir Nabokov's controversial character...




        It is a measure of Humbert's perspicacity that he is sufficiently aware of what he is doing to say that "Lolita had been safely solipsized";

        the Russian translation makes the point even more bluntly: "Real'nost' Lolity byla blagopoluchno otmenena," which means, literally, "Lolita's reality was successfully cancelled"




        I assume the intended sense is "Since Lolita isn't real, I can do what I like with her". It's a rather obscure philosophical context, so it's no surprise few Anglophones have found reason to promote this particular "credible, but unlikely" verb usage.



        In practice (and somewhat less metaphysically) we tend to base this kind of rationalization on "Since [victim] isn't human, I can do what I like to her/him/it" (we dehumanize the victim, rather than philosophically rationalize her into complete "non-existence").






        share|improve this answer



















        • 1




          Original Russian? Lolita was written in English.
          – user85798
          Apr 29 '16 at 18:26










        • @bwv869: My bad - you're quite right. But since Nabokov was a Russian speaker by birth, wrote many earlier novels in Russian, and presumably primarily tended to think in Russian, I think the point I was making is still substantially valid. So I've just edited out the misleading reference to "Original Russian" - thanks for flagging it up.
          – FumbleFingers
          May 10 '16 at 15:47
















        1














        It's just a quirk of Nabokov's phrasing that the most accurate rendition in English relies on ad-hoc "verbification" to succinctly capture the sense more easily expressed in Russian.



        From Bloom, 1993 - selection of literary criticism focusing on Vladimir Nabokov's controversial character...




        It is a measure of Humbert's perspicacity that he is sufficiently aware of what he is doing to say that "Lolita had been safely solipsized";

        the Russian translation makes the point even more bluntly: "Real'nost' Lolity byla blagopoluchno otmenena," which means, literally, "Lolita's reality was successfully cancelled"




        I assume the intended sense is "Since Lolita isn't real, I can do what I like with her". It's a rather obscure philosophical context, so it's no surprise few Anglophones have found reason to promote this particular "credible, but unlikely" verb usage.



        In practice (and somewhat less metaphysically) we tend to base this kind of rationalization on "Since [victim] isn't human, I can do what I like to her/him/it" (we dehumanize the victim, rather than philosophically rationalize her into complete "non-existence").






        share|improve this answer



















        • 1




          Original Russian? Lolita was written in English.
          – user85798
          Apr 29 '16 at 18:26










        • @bwv869: My bad - you're quite right. But since Nabokov was a Russian speaker by birth, wrote many earlier novels in Russian, and presumably primarily tended to think in Russian, I think the point I was making is still substantially valid. So I've just edited out the misleading reference to "Original Russian" - thanks for flagging it up.
          – FumbleFingers
          May 10 '16 at 15:47














        1












        1








        1






        It's just a quirk of Nabokov's phrasing that the most accurate rendition in English relies on ad-hoc "verbification" to succinctly capture the sense more easily expressed in Russian.



        From Bloom, 1993 - selection of literary criticism focusing on Vladimir Nabokov's controversial character...




        It is a measure of Humbert's perspicacity that he is sufficiently aware of what he is doing to say that "Lolita had been safely solipsized";

        the Russian translation makes the point even more bluntly: "Real'nost' Lolity byla blagopoluchno otmenena," which means, literally, "Lolita's reality was successfully cancelled"




        I assume the intended sense is "Since Lolita isn't real, I can do what I like with her". It's a rather obscure philosophical context, so it's no surprise few Anglophones have found reason to promote this particular "credible, but unlikely" verb usage.



        In practice (and somewhat less metaphysically) we tend to base this kind of rationalization on "Since [victim] isn't human, I can do what I like to her/him/it" (we dehumanize the victim, rather than philosophically rationalize her into complete "non-existence").






        share|improve this answer














        It's just a quirk of Nabokov's phrasing that the most accurate rendition in English relies on ad-hoc "verbification" to succinctly capture the sense more easily expressed in Russian.



        From Bloom, 1993 - selection of literary criticism focusing on Vladimir Nabokov's controversial character...




        It is a measure of Humbert's perspicacity that he is sufficiently aware of what he is doing to say that "Lolita had been safely solipsized";

        the Russian translation makes the point even more bluntly: "Real'nost' Lolity byla blagopoluchno otmenena," which means, literally, "Lolita's reality was successfully cancelled"




        I assume the intended sense is "Since Lolita isn't real, I can do what I like with her". It's a rather obscure philosophical context, so it's no surprise few Anglophones have found reason to promote this particular "credible, but unlikely" verb usage.



        In practice (and somewhat less metaphysically) we tend to base this kind of rationalization on "Since [victim] isn't human, I can do what I like to her/him/it" (we dehumanize the victim, rather than philosophically rationalize her into complete "non-existence").







        share|improve this answer














        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer








        edited May 10 '16 at 15:41

























        answered Nov 15 '14 at 14:22









        FumbleFingers

        119k32242423




        119k32242423








        • 1




          Original Russian? Lolita was written in English.
          – user85798
          Apr 29 '16 at 18:26










        • @bwv869: My bad - you're quite right. But since Nabokov was a Russian speaker by birth, wrote many earlier novels in Russian, and presumably primarily tended to think in Russian, I think the point I was making is still substantially valid. So I've just edited out the misleading reference to "Original Russian" - thanks for flagging it up.
          – FumbleFingers
          May 10 '16 at 15:47














        • 1




          Original Russian? Lolita was written in English.
          – user85798
          Apr 29 '16 at 18:26










        • @bwv869: My bad - you're quite right. But since Nabokov was a Russian speaker by birth, wrote many earlier novels in Russian, and presumably primarily tended to think in Russian, I think the point I was making is still substantially valid. So I've just edited out the misleading reference to "Original Russian" - thanks for flagging it up.
          – FumbleFingers
          May 10 '16 at 15:47








        1




        1




        Original Russian? Lolita was written in English.
        – user85798
        Apr 29 '16 at 18:26




        Original Russian? Lolita was written in English.
        – user85798
        Apr 29 '16 at 18:26












        @bwv869: My bad - you're quite right. But since Nabokov was a Russian speaker by birth, wrote many earlier novels in Russian, and presumably primarily tended to think in Russian, I think the point I was making is still substantially valid. So I've just edited out the misleading reference to "Original Russian" - thanks for flagging it up.
        – FumbleFingers
        May 10 '16 at 15:47




        @bwv869: My bad - you're quite right. But since Nabokov was a Russian speaker by birth, wrote many earlier novels in Russian, and presumably primarily tended to think in Russian, I think the point I was making is still substantially valid. So I've just edited out the misleading reference to "Original Russian" - thanks for flagging it up.
        – FumbleFingers
        May 10 '16 at 15:47













        1














        I think there is a simpler answer.



        Humbert wanted Lolita to withdraw from any interest in the outside world and instead become more interested in her own needs and wants. This way Humbert would not have to worry about interference with his "sexual dance" from any authorities and the like, who they would come into occasional contact with as they traveled.



        Solipsists were known to question whether anything outside the observer's mind really existed. This invariably led to the elevation of the person him/herself and not of those in the world outside. Solipsizing, a word the Russian writer Nabokov and lover of the English language apparently formed himself, seems to be a method used by Humbert of drawing Lolita into herself so that the protagonist could subsequently have even more control of her limited external experiences and hence participate in his "marriage" rather safely.






        share|improve this answer


























          1














          I think there is a simpler answer.



          Humbert wanted Lolita to withdraw from any interest in the outside world and instead become more interested in her own needs and wants. This way Humbert would not have to worry about interference with his "sexual dance" from any authorities and the like, who they would come into occasional contact with as they traveled.



          Solipsists were known to question whether anything outside the observer's mind really existed. This invariably led to the elevation of the person him/herself and not of those in the world outside. Solipsizing, a word the Russian writer Nabokov and lover of the English language apparently formed himself, seems to be a method used by Humbert of drawing Lolita into herself so that the protagonist could subsequently have even more control of her limited external experiences and hence participate in his "marriage" rather safely.






          share|improve this answer
























            1












            1








            1






            I think there is a simpler answer.



            Humbert wanted Lolita to withdraw from any interest in the outside world and instead become more interested in her own needs and wants. This way Humbert would not have to worry about interference with his "sexual dance" from any authorities and the like, who they would come into occasional contact with as they traveled.



            Solipsists were known to question whether anything outside the observer's mind really existed. This invariably led to the elevation of the person him/herself and not of those in the world outside. Solipsizing, a word the Russian writer Nabokov and lover of the English language apparently formed himself, seems to be a method used by Humbert of drawing Lolita into herself so that the protagonist could subsequently have even more control of her limited external experiences and hence participate in his "marriage" rather safely.






            share|improve this answer












            I think there is a simpler answer.



            Humbert wanted Lolita to withdraw from any interest in the outside world and instead become more interested in her own needs and wants. This way Humbert would not have to worry about interference with his "sexual dance" from any authorities and the like, who they would come into occasional contact with as they traveled.



            Solipsists were known to question whether anything outside the observer's mind really existed. This invariably led to the elevation of the person him/herself and not of those in the world outside. Solipsizing, a word the Russian writer Nabokov and lover of the English language apparently formed himself, seems to be a method used by Humbert of drawing Lolita into herself so that the protagonist could subsequently have even more control of her limited external experiences and hence participate in his "marriage" rather safely.







            share|improve this answer












            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer










            answered Feb 22 '15 at 19:12









            deeman

            111




            111























                0














                It might be a struggle to get from solipsism, -- as you say the belief that only the self can be known to exist, -- to a useful active verbal form as suggested by solipsized.



                You are right that the word is rare and most references seem to be to Lolita. In this context, soplipsized means to make something a part of the self. The protagonist is faced by overwhelming forces apparently external to himself, their existence beyond his control, and through a process of solipsizing (however that is achieved: I've not read the book, but can guess) he makes them a part of himself, and so apparently more controllable.



                So here it is used to mean, roughly, "to make a part of the self", with the secondary implication, by its etymology, that this is the authentic mode of a thing existing.






                share|improve this answer


























                  0














                  It might be a struggle to get from solipsism, -- as you say the belief that only the self can be known to exist, -- to a useful active verbal form as suggested by solipsized.



                  You are right that the word is rare and most references seem to be to Lolita. In this context, soplipsized means to make something a part of the self. The protagonist is faced by overwhelming forces apparently external to himself, their existence beyond his control, and through a process of solipsizing (however that is achieved: I've not read the book, but can guess) he makes them a part of himself, and so apparently more controllable.



                  So here it is used to mean, roughly, "to make a part of the self", with the secondary implication, by its etymology, that this is the authentic mode of a thing existing.






                  share|improve this answer
























                    0












                    0








                    0






                    It might be a struggle to get from solipsism, -- as you say the belief that only the self can be known to exist, -- to a useful active verbal form as suggested by solipsized.



                    You are right that the word is rare and most references seem to be to Lolita. In this context, soplipsized means to make something a part of the self. The protagonist is faced by overwhelming forces apparently external to himself, their existence beyond his control, and through a process of solipsizing (however that is achieved: I've not read the book, but can guess) he makes them a part of himself, and so apparently more controllable.



                    So here it is used to mean, roughly, "to make a part of the self", with the secondary implication, by its etymology, that this is the authentic mode of a thing existing.






                    share|improve this answer












                    It might be a struggle to get from solipsism, -- as you say the belief that only the self can be known to exist, -- to a useful active verbal form as suggested by solipsized.



                    You are right that the word is rare and most references seem to be to Lolita. In this context, soplipsized means to make something a part of the self. The protagonist is faced by overwhelming forces apparently external to himself, their existence beyond his control, and through a process of solipsizing (however that is achieved: I've not read the book, but can guess) he makes them a part of himself, and so apparently more controllable.



                    So here it is used to mean, roughly, "to make a part of the self", with the secondary implication, by its etymology, that this is the authentic mode of a thing existing.







                    share|improve this answer












                    share|improve this answer



                    share|improve this answer










                    answered Nov 15 '14 at 0:53









                    Dan Sheppard

                    3,9111033




                    3,9111033























                        0














                        I think we have it here: Lolita has been made unreal to Humbert. At the start of chapter 14, 2 pages after "Lolita had been safely solipsized" Humbert goes on to say "Lolita was safe - and I was safe. What I had madly possessed was not she, but my own creation, another, fanciful Lolita - perhaps, more real than Lolita; overlapping, encasing her; floating between me and her, and having no will, no consciousness - indeed, no life of her own."






                        share|improve this answer


























                          0














                          I think we have it here: Lolita has been made unreal to Humbert. At the start of chapter 14, 2 pages after "Lolita had been safely solipsized" Humbert goes on to say "Lolita was safe - and I was safe. What I had madly possessed was not she, but my own creation, another, fanciful Lolita - perhaps, more real than Lolita; overlapping, encasing her; floating between me and her, and having no will, no consciousness - indeed, no life of her own."






                          share|improve this answer
























                            0












                            0








                            0






                            I think we have it here: Lolita has been made unreal to Humbert. At the start of chapter 14, 2 pages after "Lolita had been safely solipsized" Humbert goes on to say "Lolita was safe - and I was safe. What I had madly possessed was not she, but my own creation, another, fanciful Lolita - perhaps, more real than Lolita; overlapping, encasing her; floating between me and her, and having no will, no consciousness - indeed, no life of her own."






                            share|improve this answer












                            I think we have it here: Lolita has been made unreal to Humbert. At the start of chapter 14, 2 pages after "Lolita had been safely solipsized" Humbert goes on to say "Lolita was safe - and I was safe. What I had madly possessed was not she, but my own creation, another, fanciful Lolita - perhaps, more real than Lolita; overlapping, encasing her; floating between me and her, and having no will, no consciousness - indeed, no life of her own."







                            share|improve this answer












                            share|improve this answer



                            share|improve this answer










                            answered Mar 28 '16 at 7:16









                            Andrew McMenamin

                            1




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