Is this question and reply valid
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
First speaker:
You do not have to hit me to prove your point
Reply:
Yes I do
Is this conversation valid? Valid in the sense that if a conversation like this should occur, there is no error?
Just to put things in perspective, this is a friendly conversation between two people, but a third person speaks up, saying the reply is inaccurate because "have to" expresses past tense. Consequently, the proper reply should have been "Yes I did."
grammatical-structure
New contributor
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
First speaker:
You do not have to hit me to prove your point
Reply:
Yes I do
Is this conversation valid? Valid in the sense that if a conversation like this should occur, there is no error?
Just to put things in perspective, this is a friendly conversation between two people, but a third person speaks up, saying the reply is inaccurate because "have to" expresses past tense. Consequently, the proper reply should have been "Yes I did."
grammatical-structure
New contributor
The two statements are grammatically correct. The first statement is not a question. The second statement is subjectively inaccurate.
– Ian MacDonald
Dec 11 at 19:59
What do you mean by "valid"?
– Colin Fine
Dec 11 at 22:00
I think the edited question should make things clearer
– Ali Richard
Dec 12 at 1:56
"Have to" doesn't imply past tense. If it were in the past it would be "You didn't have to hit me ..."
– Hot Licks
Dec 12 at 2:54
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
First speaker:
You do not have to hit me to prove your point
Reply:
Yes I do
Is this conversation valid? Valid in the sense that if a conversation like this should occur, there is no error?
Just to put things in perspective, this is a friendly conversation between two people, but a third person speaks up, saying the reply is inaccurate because "have to" expresses past tense. Consequently, the proper reply should have been "Yes I did."
grammatical-structure
New contributor
First speaker:
You do not have to hit me to prove your point
Reply:
Yes I do
Is this conversation valid? Valid in the sense that if a conversation like this should occur, there is no error?
Just to put things in perspective, this is a friendly conversation between two people, but a third person speaks up, saying the reply is inaccurate because "have to" expresses past tense. Consequently, the proper reply should have been "Yes I did."
grammatical-structure
grammatical-structure
New contributor
New contributor
edited Dec 12 at 2:14
rhetorician
16.1k11952
16.1k11952
New contributor
asked Dec 11 at 19:57
Ali Richard
61
61
New contributor
New contributor
The two statements are grammatically correct. The first statement is not a question. The second statement is subjectively inaccurate.
– Ian MacDonald
Dec 11 at 19:59
What do you mean by "valid"?
– Colin Fine
Dec 11 at 22:00
I think the edited question should make things clearer
– Ali Richard
Dec 12 at 1:56
"Have to" doesn't imply past tense. If it were in the past it would be "You didn't have to hit me ..."
– Hot Licks
Dec 12 at 2:54
add a comment |
The two statements are grammatically correct. The first statement is not a question. The second statement is subjectively inaccurate.
– Ian MacDonald
Dec 11 at 19:59
What do you mean by "valid"?
– Colin Fine
Dec 11 at 22:00
I think the edited question should make things clearer
– Ali Richard
Dec 12 at 1:56
"Have to" doesn't imply past tense. If it were in the past it would be "You didn't have to hit me ..."
– Hot Licks
Dec 12 at 2:54
The two statements are grammatically correct. The first statement is not a question. The second statement is subjectively inaccurate.
– Ian MacDonald
Dec 11 at 19:59
The two statements are grammatically correct. The first statement is not a question. The second statement is subjectively inaccurate.
– Ian MacDonald
Dec 11 at 19:59
What do you mean by "valid"?
– Colin Fine
Dec 11 at 22:00
What do you mean by "valid"?
– Colin Fine
Dec 11 at 22:00
I think the edited question should make things clearer
– Ali Richard
Dec 12 at 1:56
I think the edited question should make things clearer
– Ali Richard
Dec 12 at 1:56
"Have to" doesn't imply past tense. If it were in the past it would be "You didn't have to hit me ..."
– Hot Licks
Dec 12 at 2:54
"Have to" doesn't imply past tense. If it were in the past it would be "You didn't have to hit me ..."
– Hot Licks
Dec 12 at 2:54
add a comment |
1 Answer
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First a point about the words ‘valid’ and ‘correct’. Strictly, validity is a property of arguments: an argument is valid if the conclusion follows ‘validly’ from the premises. But either a proposition or an argument might be called ‘correct’.
When it comes to your particular argument, it does slightly depend what the point is. Suppose, for example, the aggressor’s point were:
I can go on hitting you as long as I like and you can’t stop me.
I can think of no other ‘proof’ than to go on hitting until the victim gives in! It would, of course be physical abuse and not an argument.
But, in general, this is a report of an quarrel in which the assailant has become unhinged and, failing to persuade, has resorted to violence. So neither validity nor correctness applies.
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active
oldest
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votes
up vote
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First a point about the words ‘valid’ and ‘correct’. Strictly, validity is a property of arguments: an argument is valid if the conclusion follows ‘validly’ from the premises. But either a proposition or an argument might be called ‘correct’.
When it comes to your particular argument, it does slightly depend what the point is. Suppose, for example, the aggressor’s point were:
I can go on hitting you as long as I like and you can’t stop me.
I can think of no other ‘proof’ than to go on hitting until the victim gives in! It would, of course be physical abuse and not an argument.
But, in general, this is a report of an quarrel in which the assailant has become unhinged and, failing to persuade, has resorted to violence. So neither validity nor correctness applies.
add a comment |
up vote
-1
down vote
First a point about the words ‘valid’ and ‘correct’. Strictly, validity is a property of arguments: an argument is valid if the conclusion follows ‘validly’ from the premises. But either a proposition or an argument might be called ‘correct’.
When it comes to your particular argument, it does slightly depend what the point is. Suppose, for example, the aggressor’s point were:
I can go on hitting you as long as I like and you can’t stop me.
I can think of no other ‘proof’ than to go on hitting until the victim gives in! It would, of course be physical abuse and not an argument.
But, in general, this is a report of an quarrel in which the assailant has become unhinged and, failing to persuade, has resorted to violence. So neither validity nor correctness applies.
add a comment |
up vote
-1
down vote
up vote
-1
down vote
First a point about the words ‘valid’ and ‘correct’. Strictly, validity is a property of arguments: an argument is valid if the conclusion follows ‘validly’ from the premises. But either a proposition or an argument might be called ‘correct’.
When it comes to your particular argument, it does slightly depend what the point is. Suppose, for example, the aggressor’s point were:
I can go on hitting you as long as I like and you can’t stop me.
I can think of no other ‘proof’ than to go on hitting until the victim gives in! It would, of course be physical abuse and not an argument.
But, in general, this is a report of an quarrel in which the assailant has become unhinged and, failing to persuade, has resorted to violence. So neither validity nor correctness applies.
First a point about the words ‘valid’ and ‘correct’. Strictly, validity is a property of arguments: an argument is valid if the conclusion follows ‘validly’ from the premises. But either a proposition or an argument might be called ‘correct’.
When it comes to your particular argument, it does slightly depend what the point is. Suppose, for example, the aggressor’s point were:
I can go on hitting you as long as I like and you can’t stop me.
I can think of no other ‘proof’ than to go on hitting until the victim gives in! It would, of course be physical abuse and not an argument.
But, in general, this is a report of an quarrel in which the assailant has become unhinged and, failing to persuade, has resorted to violence. So neither validity nor correctness applies.
answered Dec 11 at 20:28
Tuffy
3,1771617
3,1771617
add a comment |
add a comment |
Ali Richard is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Ali Richard is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Ali Richard is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Ali Richard is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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The two statements are grammatically correct. The first statement is not a question. The second statement is subjectively inaccurate.
– Ian MacDonald
Dec 11 at 19:59
What do you mean by "valid"?
– Colin Fine
Dec 11 at 22:00
I think the edited question should make things clearer
– Ali Richard
Dec 12 at 1:56
"Have to" doesn't imply past tense. If it were in the past it would be "You didn't have to hit me ..."
– Hot Licks
Dec 12 at 2:54