Continuous(Progressive) module in Old English
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I'm curious as to the origins of the Continuous(progressive) module.
Whenever I meet texts emulating old speech, like in: video game RPGs, books like the Saxon Chronicles, Hollywood movies about the middle ages, etc.,
I always feel that One of the more obvious differences is that they mostly talk with the Simple Tenses.
Now, most of the languages i know (3 more, fluently) have no Continuous module, and it got me to thinking whether Old English had it from the start or that it developed with the years?
etymology tenses history old-english
asked Dec 2 at 22:28
Uhtred Ragnarsson
41626
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I'm curious as to the origins of the Continuous(progressive) module.
Whenever I meet texts emulating old speech, like in: video game RPGs, books like the Saxon Chronicles, Hollywood movies about the middle ages, etc.,
I always feel that One of the more obvious differences is that they mostly talk with the Simple Tenses.
Now, most of the languages i know (3 more, fluently) have no Continuous module, and it got me to thinking whether Old English had it from the start or that it developed with the years?
etymology tenses history old-english
asked Dec 2 at 22:28
Uhtred Ragnarsson
41626
There are a few unambiguous uses of the progressive in OE, but even Shakespeare doesn't use it that often. The passive voice only arose in the 18-19th c. The history is well summarized here: homes.chass.utoronto.ca/~cpercy/courses/6362-lamont.htm
– KarlG
Dec 3 at 1:02
Appreciate the help. You said that the passive voice only arose in the 18-19th c., but even though English is an Indo-European language or West Germanic don't they all derive from Latin which does have the passive voice?
– Uhtred Ragnarsson
Dec 3 at 8:20
@Uhtred Ragnarsson no, Indo-European languages don't derive from Latin
– MrVocabulary
Dec 3 at 15:14
I meant the passive voice, progressive aspect: A new school is being built. Earlier: A new school is building. It's all in the article I linked.
– KarlG
Dec 3 at 17:10
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
I'm curious as to the origins of the Continuous(progressive) module.
Whenever I meet texts emulating old speech, like in: video game RPGs, books like the Saxon Chronicles, Hollywood movies about the middle ages, etc.,
I always feel that One of the more obvious differences is that they mostly talk with the Simple Tenses.
Now, most of the languages i know (3 more, fluently) have no Continuous module, and it got me to thinking whether Old English had it from the start or that it developed with the years?
etymology tenses history old-english
asked Dec 2 at 22:28
Uhtred Ragnarsson
41626
I'm curious as to the origins of the Continuous(progressive) module.
Whenever I meet texts emulating old speech, like in: video game RPGs, books like the Saxon Chronicles, Hollywood movies about the middle ages, etc.,
I always feel that One of the more obvious differences is that they mostly talk with the Simple Tenses.
Now, most of the languages i know (3 more, fluently) have no Continuous module, and it got me to thinking whether Old English had it from the start or that it developed with the years?
etymology tenses history old-english
etymology tenses history old-english
asked Dec 2 at 22:28
Uhtred Ragnarsson
41626
asked Dec 2 at 22:28
Uhtred Ragnarsson
41626
asked Dec 2 at 22:28
Uhtred Ragnarsson
41626
asked Dec 2 at 22:28
Uhtred Ragnarsson
41626
asked Dec 2 at 22:28
Uhtred Ragnarsson
41626
41626
There are a few unambiguous uses of the progressive in OE, but even Shakespeare doesn't use it that often. The passive voice only arose in the 18-19th c. The history is well summarized here: homes.chass.utoronto.ca/~cpercy/courses/6362-lamont.htm
– KarlG
Dec 3 at 1:02
Appreciate the help. You said that the passive voice only arose in the 18-19th c., but even though English is an Indo-European language or West Germanic don't they all derive from Latin which does have the passive voice?
– Uhtred Ragnarsson
Dec 3 at 8:20
@Uhtred Ragnarsson no, Indo-European languages don't derive from Latin
– MrVocabulary
Dec 3 at 15:14
I meant the passive voice, progressive aspect: A new school is being built. Earlier: A new school is building. It's all in the article I linked.
– KarlG
Dec 3 at 17:10
add a comment |
There are a few unambiguous uses of the progressive in OE, but even Shakespeare doesn't use it that often. The passive voice only arose in the 18-19th c. The history is well summarized here: homes.chass.utoronto.ca/~cpercy/courses/6362-lamont.htm
– KarlG
Dec 3 at 1:02
Appreciate the help. You said that the passive voice only arose in the 18-19th c., but even though English is an Indo-European language or West Germanic don't they all derive from Latin which does have the passive voice?
– Uhtred Ragnarsson
Dec 3 at 8:20
@Uhtred Ragnarsson no, Indo-European languages don't derive from Latin
– MrVocabulary
Dec 3 at 15:14
I meant the passive voice, progressive aspect: A new school is being built. Earlier: A new school is building. It's all in the article I linked.
– KarlG
Dec 3 at 17:10
There are a few unambiguous uses of the progressive in OE, but even Shakespeare doesn't use it that often. The passive voice only arose in the 18-19th c. The history is well summarized here: homes.chass.utoronto.ca/~cpercy/courses/6362-lamont.htm
– KarlG
Dec 3 at 1:02
There are a few unambiguous uses of the progressive in OE, but even Shakespeare doesn't use it that often. The passive voice only arose in the 18-19th c. The history is well summarized here: homes.chass.utoronto.ca/~cpercy/courses/6362-lamont.htm
– KarlG
Dec 3 at 1:02
Appreciate the help. You said that the passive voice only arose in the 18-19th c., but even though English is an Indo-European language or West Germanic don't they all derive from Latin which does have the passive voice?
– Uhtred Ragnarsson
Dec 3 at 8:20
Appreciate the help. You said that the passive voice only arose in the 18-19th c., but even though English is an Indo-European language or West Germanic don't they all derive from Latin which does have the passive voice?
– Uhtred Ragnarsson
Dec 3 at 8:20
@Uhtred Ragnarsson no, Indo-European languages don't derive from Latin
– MrVocabulary
Dec 3 at 15:14
@Uhtred Ragnarsson no, Indo-European languages don't derive from Latin
– MrVocabulary
Dec 3 at 15:14
I meant the passive voice, progressive aspect: A new school is being built. Earlier: A new school is building. It's all in the article I linked.
– KarlG
Dec 3 at 17:10
I meant the passive voice, progressive aspect: A new school is being built. Earlier: A new school is building. It's all in the article I linked.
– KarlG
Dec 3 at 17:10
add a comment |
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There are a few unambiguous uses of the progressive in OE, but even Shakespeare doesn't use it that often. The passive voice only arose in the 18-19th c. The history is well summarized here: homes.chass.utoronto.ca/~cpercy/courses/6362-lamont.htm
– KarlG
Dec 3 at 1:02
Appreciate the help. You said that the passive voice only arose in the 18-19th c., but even though English is an Indo-European language or West Germanic don't they all derive from Latin which does have the passive voice?
– Uhtred Ragnarsson
Dec 3 at 8:20
@Uhtred Ragnarsson no, Indo-European languages don't derive from Latin
– MrVocabulary
Dec 3 at 15:14
I meant the passive voice, progressive aspect: A new school is being built. Earlier: A new school is building. It's all in the article I linked.
– KarlG
Dec 3 at 17:10