Why does $sum_{ngeq0}(1-x)^n=frac1x$ have such a poor radius of convergence?











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I am confused as to why $$sum_{ngeq0}(1-x)^n=frac1x$$
only works for $xin (0,2)$. I get that it has a singularity at $x=0$, so that can't work, but there are no singularities for the rest of the positive real line. Why isn't there a power series representation of $frac1x$ which works for the whole positive real line? Are there any series representations of $1/x$ which work for $xin (0,infty)$? I can't find any. Thanks.










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  • The domain of convergence of a real power series is always either a finitely long interval or the whole real line.
    – Andreas Blass
    Nov 30 at 18:27






  • 3




    $sum r^n$ converges iff $-1<r<1$. If $r=1-x$ that's the same as $0<x<2$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 30 at 18:28










  • $1/x$ has a pole at $x=0$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 30 at 18:28






  • 1




    More specifically: their intervals of convergence are symmetric around the point of evaluation, which is $1$ here, so the Taylor series does not converge beyond $x = 2$ (and you can check that it doesn't converge at $x = 2$ either).
    – user3482749
    Nov 30 at 18:31















up vote
5
down vote

favorite
1












I am confused as to why $$sum_{ngeq0}(1-x)^n=frac1x$$
only works for $xin (0,2)$. I get that it has a singularity at $x=0$, so that can't work, but there are no singularities for the rest of the positive real line. Why isn't there a power series representation of $frac1x$ which works for the whole positive real line? Are there any series representations of $1/x$ which work for $xin (0,infty)$? I can't find any. Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • The domain of convergence of a real power series is always either a finitely long interval or the whole real line.
    – Andreas Blass
    Nov 30 at 18:27






  • 3




    $sum r^n$ converges iff $-1<r<1$. If $r=1-x$ that's the same as $0<x<2$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 30 at 18:28










  • $1/x$ has a pole at $x=0$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 30 at 18:28






  • 1




    More specifically: their intervals of convergence are symmetric around the point of evaluation, which is $1$ here, so the Taylor series does not converge beyond $x = 2$ (and you can check that it doesn't converge at $x = 2$ either).
    – user3482749
    Nov 30 at 18:31













up vote
5
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
5
down vote

favorite
1






1





I am confused as to why $$sum_{ngeq0}(1-x)^n=frac1x$$
only works for $xin (0,2)$. I get that it has a singularity at $x=0$, so that can't work, but there are no singularities for the rest of the positive real line. Why isn't there a power series representation of $frac1x$ which works for the whole positive real line? Are there any series representations of $1/x$ which work for $xin (0,infty)$? I can't find any. Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question















I am confused as to why $$sum_{ngeq0}(1-x)^n=frac1x$$
only works for $xin (0,2)$. I get that it has a singularity at $x=0$, so that can't work, but there are no singularities for the rest of the positive real line. Why isn't there a power series representation of $frac1x$ which works for the whole positive real line? Are there any series representations of $1/x$ which work for $xin (0,infty)$? I can't find any. Thanks.







sequences-and-series convergence power-series taylor-expansion






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edited Dec 1 at 7:31









Asaf Karagila

300k32422752




300k32422752










asked Nov 30 at 18:26









clathratus

2,394324




2,394324












  • The domain of convergence of a real power series is always either a finitely long interval or the whole real line.
    – Andreas Blass
    Nov 30 at 18:27






  • 3




    $sum r^n$ converges iff $-1<r<1$. If $r=1-x$ that's the same as $0<x<2$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 30 at 18:28










  • $1/x$ has a pole at $x=0$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 30 at 18:28






  • 1




    More specifically: their intervals of convergence are symmetric around the point of evaluation, which is $1$ here, so the Taylor series does not converge beyond $x = 2$ (and you can check that it doesn't converge at $x = 2$ either).
    – user3482749
    Nov 30 at 18:31


















  • The domain of convergence of a real power series is always either a finitely long interval or the whole real line.
    – Andreas Blass
    Nov 30 at 18:27






  • 3




    $sum r^n$ converges iff $-1<r<1$. If $r=1-x$ that's the same as $0<x<2$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 30 at 18:28










  • $1/x$ has a pole at $x=0$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 30 at 18:28






  • 1




    More specifically: their intervals of convergence are symmetric around the point of evaluation, which is $1$ here, so the Taylor series does not converge beyond $x = 2$ (and you can check that it doesn't converge at $x = 2$ either).
    – user3482749
    Nov 30 at 18:31
















The domain of convergence of a real power series is always either a finitely long interval or the whole real line.
– Andreas Blass
Nov 30 at 18:27




The domain of convergence of a real power series is always either a finitely long interval or the whole real line.
– Andreas Blass
Nov 30 at 18:27




3




3




$sum r^n$ converges iff $-1<r<1$. If $r=1-x$ that's the same as $0<x<2$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 30 at 18:28




$sum r^n$ converges iff $-1<r<1$. If $r=1-x$ that's the same as $0<x<2$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 30 at 18:28












$1/x$ has a pole at $x=0$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 30 at 18:28




$1/x$ has a pole at $x=0$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 30 at 18:28




1




1




More specifically: their intervals of convergence are symmetric around the point of evaluation, which is $1$ here, so the Taylor series does not converge beyond $x = 2$ (and you can check that it doesn't converge at $x = 2$ either).
– user3482749
Nov 30 at 18:31




More specifically: their intervals of convergence are symmetric around the point of evaluation, which is $1$ here, so the Taylor series does not converge beyond $x = 2$ (and you can check that it doesn't converge at $x = 2$ either).
– user3482749
Nov 30 at 18:31










4 Answers
4






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up vote
9
down vote



accepted










The radius of convergence of a power series in $z-a$ is the largest $r$ such that the sum of the series is analytic in the disk ${z: |z-a| < r}$ in the complex plane. Thus a singularity at some point stops the series from converging
at all points farther away from the centre than that point, even though the function may be analytic at those other points.



On the other hand, you could take the series
$$ frac{1}{x} = -1 + sum_{n=1}^infty left(frac{1+x}{1+2x}right)^n$$
which converges for all $x > 0$ (in fact, everywhere outside a circle of radius $1/3$ centred at $-1/3$ in the complex plane).
Of course, this is not a power series in the usual sense.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • What type of series is $$-1+sum_{ngeq0}bigg(frac{1+x}{1+2x}bigg)^n$$ and how do you find it? Is this type of series generally better at approximating rational functions?
    – clathratus
    Nov 30 at 21:36








  • 2




    @clathratus It's just a geometric series where $y=frac{1+x}{1+2x}$. It is a special case for $a=2$ of: $$frac{1}{x}+a = frac{1+ax}{x}\ = frac{1+ax}{1+ax - (1+ax-x)}\ = frac{1}{1 - frac{1+(a-1)x}{1+ax}}\ =sum_{n=0}^infty left(frac{1+(a-1)x}{1+ax}right)^n $$ Note that the series given in the posted answer does not include the term $n=0$ as you wrote in your comment.
    – adfriedman
    Nov 30 at 22:51












  • @adfriedman I see. So the $$sum_{n=0}^{infty}$$ in your comment is supposed to be different too?
    – clathratus
    Nov 30 at 23:20








  • 2




    No, I wrote what I meant. you could rewrite mine as $$frac{1}{x} = 1-a + sum_{n=1}^infty left(frac{1+(a-1)x}{1+ax}right)^n$$ to be consistent if you'd like. (The $n=0$ term is just $1$, so take your pick on whether you want to index it or not)
    – adfriedman
    Nov 30 at 23:29












  • @adfriedman Thank you for the clarification. I understand now.
    – clathratus
    Dec 1 at 2:31


















up vote
4
down vote













The basic answer to you question is that a "normal" power series, i.e. with non-negative integral
exponents, including Taylor series, does not have singularities in the finite complex plane
and consequently cannot reproduce them.



A function $ f(z)$ , which is analytic in a domain of the complex plane,
can be developed (by definition) in power series around a point in that domain, and the radius
of convergence of the series will be equal to the distance of that point from the nearest
singularity, of course excluded.



Thus, for $1/z$ which has a simple pole at $z=0$ :

- when developed at $z=1$ will have a convergence radius of $ 1$;

- to get a larger radius( $R$), you shall develop it around $z_0=R$ ;

- there is no possibility to develop it so as to encompass positive and negative real values of it.



The Laurent series for $1/z$ at $z_0=0$ is infact $1/z$, i.e. the function itself.






share|cite|improve this answer






























    up vote
    2
    down vote













    The geometric series $sum_{ngeq0}(1-x)^n$ converges for



    $$|1-x|<1 iff -1<1-x<1 iff 0<x<2$$



    and we have



    $$sum_{ngeq0}(1-x)^n=frac{1}{1-(1-x)}=frac1x$$






    share|cite|improve this answer




























      up vote
      2
      down vote













      The set of those real numbers at which a power series $displaystylesum_{n=0}^infty a_n(x-a)^n$ belongs to one of these types:





      • ${a}$;


      • $(a-r,a+r)$, for some $rin(0,+infty)$;


      • $(a-r,a+r]$, for some $rin(0,+infty)$;


      • $[a-r,a+r)$, for some $rin(0,+infty)$;


      • $[a-r,a+r]$, for some $rin(0,+infty)$;


      • $mathbb R$.


      Since, $(0,+infty)$ doesn't appear here, no power series exists whose sum is $frac1x$ in $(0,+infty)$ and which diverges otherwise.






      share|cite|improve this answer





















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        4 Answers
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        active

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        4 Answers
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        active

        oldest

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        active

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        active

        oldest

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        up vote
        9
        down vote



        accepted










        The radius of convergence of a power series in $z-a$ is the largest $r$ such that the sum of the series is analytic in the disk ${z: |z-a| < r}$ in the complex plane. Thus a singularity at some point stops the series from converging
        at all points farther away from the centre than that point, even though the function may be analytic at those other points.



        On the other hand, you could take the series
        $$ frac{1}{x} = -1 + sum_{n=1}^infty left(frac{1+x}{1+2x}right)^n$$
        which converges for all $x > 0$ (in fact, everywhere outside a circle of radius $1/3$ centred at $-1/3$ in the complex plane).
        Of course, this is not a power series in the usual sense.






        share|cite|improve this answer























        • What type of series is $$-1+sum_{ngeq0}bigg(frac{1+x}{1+2x}bigg)^n$$ and how do you find it? Is this type of series generally better at approximating rational functions?
          – clathratus
          Nov 30 at 21:36








        • 2




          @clathratus It's just a geometric series where $y=frac{1+x}{1+2x}$. It is a special case for $a=2$ of: $$frac{1}{x}+a = frac{1+ax}{x}\ = frac{1+ax}{1+ax - (1+ax-x)}\ = frac{1}{1 - frac{1+(a-1)x}{1+ax}}\ =sum_{n=0}^infty left(frac{1+(a-1)x}{1+ax}right)^n $$ Note that the series given in the posted answer does not include the term $n=0$ as you wrote in your comment.
          – adfriedman
          Nov 30 at 22:51












        • @adfriedman I see. So the $$sum_{n=0}^{infty}$$ in your comment is supposed to be different too?
          – clathratus
          Nov 30 at 23:20








        • 2




          No, I wrote what I meant. you could rewrite mine as $$frac{1}{x} = 1-a + sum_{n=1}^infty left(frac{1+(a-1)x}{1+ax}right)^n$$ to be consistent if you'd like. (The $n=0$ term is just $1$, so take your pick on whether you want to index it or not)
          – adfriedman
          Nov 30 at 23:29












        • @adfriedman Thank you for the clarification. I understand now.
          – clathratus
          Dec 1 at 2:31















        up vote
        9
        down vote



        accepted










        The radius of convergence of a power series in $z-a$ is the largest $r$ such that the sum of the series is analytic in the disk ${z: |z-a| < r}$ in the complex plane. Thus a singularity at some point stops the series from converging
        at all points farther away from the centre than that point, even though the function may be analytic at those other points.



        On the other hand, you could take the series
        $$ frac{1}{x} = -1 + sum_{n=1}^infty left(frac{1+x}{1+2x}right)^n$$
        which converges for all $x > 0$ (in fact, everywhere outside a circle of radius $1/3$ centred at $-1/3$ in the complex plane).
        Of course, this is not a power series in the usual sense.






        share|cite|improve this answer























        • What type of series is $$-1+sum_{ngeq0}bigg(frac{1+x}{1+2x}bigg)^n$$ and how do you find it? Is this type of series generally better at approximating rational functions?
          – clathratus
          Nov 30 at 21:36








        • 2




          @clathratus It's just a geometric series where $y=frac{1+x}{1+2x}$. It is a special case for $a=2$ of: $$frac{1}{x}+a = frac{1+ax}{x}\ = frac{1+ax}{1+ax - (1+ax-x)}\ = frac{1}{1 - frac{1+(a-1)x}{1+ax}}\ =sum_{n=0}^infty left(frac{1+(a-1)x}{1+ax}right)^n $$ Note that the series given in the posted answer does not include the term $n=0$ as you wrote in your comment.
          – adfriedman
          Nov 30 at 22:51












        • @adfriedman I see. So the $$sum_{n=0}^{infty}$$ in your comment is supposed to be different too?
          – clathratus
          Nov 30 at 23:20








        • 2




          No, I wrote what I meant. you could rewrite mine as $$frac{1}{x} = 1-a + sum_{n=1}^infty left(frac{1+(a-1)x}{1+ax}right)^n$$ to be consistent if you'd like. (The $n=0$ term is just $1$, so take your pick on whether you want to index it or not)
          – adfriedman
          Nov 30 at 23:29












        • @adfriedman Thank you for the clarification. I understand now.
          – clathratus
          Dec 1 at 2:31













        up vote
        9
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        9
        down vote



        accepted






        The radius of convergence of a power series in $z-a$ is the largest $r$ such that the sum of the series is analytic in the disk ${z: |z-a| < r}$ in the complex plane. Thus a singularity at some point stops the series from converging
        at all points farther away from the centre than that point, even though the function may be analytic at those other points.



        On the other hand, you could take the series
        $$ frac{1}{x} = -1 + sum_{n=1}^infty left(frac{1+x}{1+2x}right)^n$$
        which converges for all $x > 0$ (in fact, everywhere outside a circle of radius $1/3$ centred at $-1/3$ in the complex plane).
        Of course, this is not a power series in the usual sense.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        The radius of convergence of a power series in $z-a$ is the largest $r$ such that the sum of the series is analytic in the disk ${z: |z-a| < r}$ in the complex plane. Thus a singularity at some point stops the series from converging
        at all points farther away from the centre than that point, even though the function may be analytic at those other points.



        On the other hand, you could take the series
        $$ frac{1}{x} = -1 + sum_{n=1}^infty left(frac{1+x}{1+2x}right)^n$$
        which converges for all $x > 0$ (in fact, everywhere outside a circle of radius $1/3$ centred at $-1/3$ in the complex plane).
        Of course, this is not a power series in the usual sense.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Nov 30 at 18:47

























        answered Nov 30 at 18:35









        Robert Israel

        316k23206457




        316k23206457












        • What type of series is $$-1+sum_{ngeq0}bigg(frac{1+x}{1+2x}bigg)^n$$ and how do you find it? Is this type of series generally better at approximating rational functions?
          – clathratus
          Nov 30 at 21:36








        • 2




          @clathratus It's just a geometric series where $y=frac{1+x}{1+2x}$. It is a special case for $a=2$ of: $$frac{1}{x}+a = frac{1+ax}{x}\ = frac{1+ax}{1+ax - (1+ax-x)}\ = frac{1}{1 - frac{1+(a-1)x}{1+ax}}\ =sum_{n=0}^infty left(frac{1+(a-1)x}{1+ax}right)^n $$ Note that the series given in the posted answer does not include the term $n=0$ as you wrote in your comment.
          – adfriedman
          Nov 30 at 22:51












        • @adfriedman I see. So the $$sum_{n=0}^{infty}$$ in your comment is supposed to be different too?
          – clathratus
          Nov 30 at 23:20








        • 2




          No, I wrote what I meant. you could rewrite mine as $$frac{1}{x} = 1-a + sum_{n=1}^infty left(frac{1+(a-1)x}{1+ax}right)^n$$ to be consistent if you'd like. (The $n=0$ term is just $1$, so take your pick on whether you want to index it or not)
          – adfriedman
          Nov 30 at 23:29












        • @adfriedman Thank you for the clarification. I understand now.
          – clathratus
          Dec 1 at 2:31


















        • What type of series is $$-1+sum_{ngeq0}bigg(frac{1+x}{1+2x}bigg)^n$$ and how do you find it? Is this type of series generally better at approximating rational functions?
          – clathratus
          Nov 30 at 21:36








        • 2




          @clathratus It's just a geometric series where $y=frac{1+x}{1+2x}$. It is a special case for $a=2$ of: $$frac{1}{x}+a = frac{1+ax}{x}\ = frac{1+ax}{1+ax - (1+ax-x)}\ = frac{1}{1 - frac{1+(a-1)x}{1+ax}}\ =sum_{n=0}^infty left(frac{1+(a-1)x}{1+ax}right)^n $$ Note that the series given in the posted answer does not include the term $n=0$ as you wrote in your comment.
          – adfriedman
          Nov 30 at 22:51












        • @adfriedman I see. So the $$sum_{n=0}^{infty}$$ in your comment is supposed to be different too?
          – clathratus
          Nov 30 at 23:20








        • 2




          No, I wrote what I meant. you could rewrite mine as $$frac{1}{x} = 1-a + sum_{n=1}^infty left(frac{1+(a-1)x}{1+ax}right)^n$$ to be consistent if you'd like. (The $n=0$ term is just $1$, so take your pick on whether you want to index it or not)
          – adfriedman
          Nov 30 at 23:29












        • @adfriedman Thank you for the clarification. I understand now.
          – clathratus
          Dec 1 at 2:31
















        What type of series is $$-1+sum_{ngeq0}bigg(frac{1+x}{1+2x}bigg)^n$$ and how do you find it? Is this type of series generally better at approximating rational functions?
        – clathratus
        Nov 30 at 21:36






        What type of series is $$-1+sum_{ngeq0}bigg(frac{1+x}{1+2x}bigg)^n$$ and how do you find it? Is this type of series generally better at approximating rational functions?
        – clathratus
        Nov 30 at 21:36






        2




        2




        @clathratus It's just a geometric series where $y=frac{1+x}{1+2x}$. It is a special case for $a=2$ of: $$frac{1}{x}+a = frac{1+ax}{x}\ = frac{1+ax}{1+ax - (1+ax-x)}\ = frac{1}{1 - frac{1+(a-1)x}{1+ax}}\ =sum_{n=0}^infty left(frac{1+(a-1)x}{1+ax}right)^n $$ Note that the series given in the posted answer does not include the term $n=0$ as you wrote in your comment.
        – adfriedman
        Nov 30 at 22:51






        @clathratus It's just a geometric series where $y=frac{1+x}{1+2x}$. It is a special case for $a=2$ of: $$frac{1}{x}+a = frac{1+ax}{x}\ = frac{1+ax}{1+ax - (1+ax-x)}\ = frac{1}{1 - frac{1+(a-1)x}{1+ax}}\ =sum_{n=0}^infty left(frac{1+(a-1)x}{1+ax}right)^n $$ Note that the series given in the posted answer does not include the term $n=0$ as you wrote in your comment.
        – adfriedman
        Nov 30 at 22:51














        @adfriedman I see. So the $$sum_{n=0}^{infty}$$ in your comment is supposed to be different too?
        – clathratus
        Nov 30 at 23:20






        @adfriedman I see. So the $$sum_{n=0}^{infty}$$ in your comment is supposed to be different too?
        – clathratus
        Nov 30 at 23:20






        2




        2




        No, I wrote what I meant. you could rewrite mine as $$frac{1}{x} = 1-a + sum_{n=1}^infty left(frac{1+(a-1)x}{1+ax}right)^n$$ to be consistent if you'd like. (The $n=0$ term is just $1$, so take your pick on whether you want to index it or not)
        – adfriedman
        Nov 30 at 23:29






        No, I wrote what I meant. you could rewrite mine as $$frac{1}{x} = 1-a + sum_{n=1}^infty left(frac{1+(a-1)x}{1+ax}right)^n$$ to be consistent if you'd like. (The $n=0$ term is just $1$, so take your pick on whether you want to index it or not)
        – adfriedman
        Nov 30 at 23:29














        @adfriedman Thank you for the clarification. I understand now.
        – clathratus
        Dec 1 at 2:31




        @adfriedman Thank you for the clarification. I understand now.
        – clathratus
        Dec 1 at 2:31










        up vote
        4
        down vote













        The basic answer to you question is that a "normal" power series, i.e. with non-negative integral
        exponents, including Taylor series, does not have singularities in the finite complex plane
        and consequently cannot reproduce them.



        A function $ f(z)$ , which is analytic in a domain of the complex plane,
        can be developed (by definition) in power series around a point in that domain, and the radius
        of convergence of the series will be equal to the distance of that point from the nearest
        singularity, of course excluded.



        Thus, for $1/z$ which has a simple pole at $z=0$ :

        - when developed at $z=1$ will have a convergence radius of $ 1$;

        - to get a larger radius( $R$), you shall develop it around $z_0=R$ ;

        - there is no possibility to develop it so as to encompass positive and negative real values of it.



        The Laurent series for $1/z$ at $z_0=0$ is infact $1/z$, i.e. the function itself.






        share|cite|improve this answer



























          up vote
          4
          down vote













          The basic answer to you question is that a "normal" power series, i.e. with non-negative integral
          exponents, including Taylor series, does not have singularities in the finite complex plane
          and consequently cannot reproduce them.



          A function $ f(z)$ , which is analytic in a domain of the complex plane,
          can be developed (by definition) in power series around a point in that domain, and the radius
          of convergence of the series will be equal to the distance of that point from the nearest
          singularity, of course excluded.



          Thus, for $1/z$ which has a simple pole at $z=0$ :

          - when developed at $z=1$ will have a convergence radius of $ 1$;

          - to get a larger radius( $R$), you shall develop it around $z_0=R$ ;

          - there is no possibility to develop it so as to encompass positive and negative real values of it.



          The Laurent series for $1/z$ at $z_0=0$ is infact $1/z$, i.e. the function itself.






          share|cite|improve this answer

























            up vote
            4
            down vote










            up vote
            4
            down vote









            The basic answer to you question is that a "normal" power series, i.e. with non-negative integral
            exponents, including Taylor series, does not have singularities in the finite complex plane
            and consequently cannot reproduce them.



            A function $ f(z)$ , which is analytic in a domain of the complex plane,
            can be developed (by definition) in power series around a point in that domain, and the radius
            of convergence of the series will be equal to the distance of that point from the nearest
            singularity, of course excluded.



            Thus, for $1/z$ which has a simple pole at $z=0$ :

            - when developed at $z=1$ will have a convergence radius of $ 1$;

            - to get a larger radius( $R$), you shall develop it around $z_0=R$ ;

            - there is no possibility to develop it so as to encompass positive and negative real values of it.



            The Laurent series for $1/z$ at $z_0=0$ is infact $1/z$, i.e. the function itself.






            share|cite|improve this answer














            The basic answer to you question is that a "normal" power series, i.e. with non-negative integral
            exponents, including Taylor series, does not have singularities in the finite complex plane
            and consequently cannot reproduce them.



            A function $ f(z)$ , which is analytic in a domain of the complex plane,
            can be developed (by definition) in power series around a point in that domain, and the radius
            of convergence of the series will be equal to the distance of that point from the nearest
            singularity, of course excluded.



            Thus, for $1/z$ which has a simple pole at $z=0$ :

            - when developed at $z=1$ will have a convergence radius of $ 1$;

            - to get a larger radius( $R$), you shall develop it around $z_0=R$ ;

            - there is no possibility to develop it so as to encompass positive and negative real values of it.



            The Laurent series for $1/z$ at $z_0=0$ is infact $1/z$, i.e. the function itself.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Dec 1 at 16:53

























            answered Nov 30 at 21:29









            G Cab

            17.3k31237




            17.3k31237






















                up vote
                2
                down vote













                The geometric series $sum_{ngeq0}(1-x)^n$ converges for



                $$|1-x|<1 iff -1<1-x<1 iff 0<x<2$$



                and we have



                $$sum_{ngeq0}(1-x)^n=frac{1}{1-(1-x)}=frac1x$$






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote













                  The geometric series $sum_{ngeq0}(1-x)^n$ converges for



                  $$|1-x|<1 iff -1<1-x<1 iff 0<x<2$$



                  and we have



                  $$sum_{ngeq0}(1-x)^n=frac{1}{1-(1-x)}=frac1x$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer























                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote









                    The geometric series $sum_{ngeq0}(1-x)^n$ converges for



                    $$|1-x|<1 iff -1<1-x<1 iff 0<x<2$$



                    and we have



                    $$sum_{ngeq0}(1-x)^n=frac{1}{1-(1-x)}=frac1x$$






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    The geometric series $sum_{ngeq0}(1-x)^n$ converges for



                    $$|1-x|<1 iff -1<1-x<1 iff 0<x<2$$



                    and we have



                    $$sum_{ngeq0}(1-x)^n=frac{1}{1-(1-x)}=frac1x$$







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Nov 30 at 18:29









                    gimusi

                    91.4k74495




                    91.4k74495






















                        up vote
                        2
                        down vote













                        The set of those real numbers at which a power series $displaystylesum_{n=0}^infty a_n(x-a)^n$ belongs to one of these types:





                        • ${a}$;


                        • $(a-r,a+r)$, for some $rin(0,+infty)$;


                        • $(a-r,a+r]$, for some $rin(0,+infty)$;


                        • $[a-r,a+r)$, for some $rin(0,+infty)$;


                        • $[a-r,a+r]$, for some $rin(0,+infty)$;


                        • $mathbb R$.


                        Since, $(0,+infty)$ doesn't appear here, no power series exists whose sum is $frac1x$ in $(0,+infty)$ and which diverges otherwise.






                        share|cite|improve this answer

























                          up vote
                          2
                          down vote













                          The set of those real numbers at which a power series $displaystylesum_{n=0}^infty a_n(x-a)^n$ belongs to one of these types:





                          • ${a}$;


                          • $(a-r,a+r)$, for some $rin(0,+infty)$;


                          • $(a-r,a+r]$, for some $rin(0,+infty)$;


                          • $[a-r,a+r)$, for some $rin(0,+infty)$;


                          • $[a-r,a+r]$, for some $rin(0,+infty)$;


                          • $mathbb R$.


                          Since, $(0,+infty)$ doesn't appear here, no power series exists whose sum is $frac1x$ in $(0,+infty)$ and which diverges otherwise.






                          share|cite|improve this answer























                            up vote
                            2
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            2
                            down vote









                            The set of those real numbers at which a power series $displaystylesum_{n=0}^infty a_n(x-a)^n$ belongs to one of these types:





                            • ${a}$;


                            • $(a-r,a+r)$, for some $rin(0,+infty)$;


                            • $(a-r,a+r]$, for some $rin(0,+infty)$;


                            • $[a-r,a+r)$, for some $rin(0,+infty)$;


                            • $[a-r,a+r]$, for some $rin(0,+infty)$;


                            • $mathbb R$.


                            Since, $(0,+infty)$ doesn't appear here, no power series exists whose sum is $frac1x$ in $(0,+infty)$ and which diverges otherwise.






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            The set of those real numbers at which a power series $displaystylesum_{n=0}^infty a_n(x-a)^n$ belongs to one of these types:





                            • ${a}$;


                            • $(a-r,a+r)$, for some $rin(0,+infty)$;


                            • $(a-r,a+r]$, for some $rin(0,+infty)$;


                            • $[a-r,a+r)$, for some $rin(0,+infty)$;


                            • $[a-r,a+r]$, for some $rin(0,+infty)$;


                            • $mathbb R$.


                            Since, $(0,+infty)$ doesn't appear here, no power series exists whose sum is $frac1x$ in $(0,+infty)$ and which diverges otherwise.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Nov 30 at 18:32









                            José Carlos Santos

                            145k22115214




                            145k22115214






























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