Expected value of random variable^4 greater than variance^2











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Let X be a random variable with mean µ and variance $sigma^2$. Show that



$E(X-mu)^4geq sigma^4$



and use this to show that the kurtosis of $X$ is at least $-2$.




This looks like a form of Chebyshev's equation:



$P(|X-mu|geq a) leq frac{sigma^2}{a^2}$



But does not relate the inequality in the probability.



I tried expanding $E(X-mu)^4$ out, but that seemed like a dead end.



Can someone guide me on how to solve this? If it does deal with Chebyshev, can someone explain in detail how to get the inequality out of the absolute value probability?










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    up vote
    3
    down vote

    favorite













    Let X be a random variable with mean µ and variance $sigma^2$. Show that



    $E(X-mu)^4geq sigma^4$



    and use this to show that the kurtosis of $X$ is at least $-2$.




    This looks like a form of Chebyshev's equation:



    $P(|X-mu|geq a) leq frac{sigma^2}{a^2}$



    But does not relate the inequality in the probability.



    I tried expanding $E(X-mu)^4$ out, but that seemed like a dead end.



    Can someone guide me on how to solve this? If it does deal with Chebyshev, can someone explain in detail how to get the inequality out of the absolute value probability?










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite












      Let X be a random variable with mean µ and variance $sigma^2$. Show that



      $E(X-mu)^4geq sigma^4$



      and use this to show that the kurtosis of $X$ is at least $-2$.




      This looks like a form of Chebyshev's equation:



      $P(|X-mu|geq a) leq frac{sigma^2}{a^2}$



      But does not relate the inequality in the probability.



      I tried expanding $E(X-mu)^4$ out, but that seemed like a dead end.



      Can someone guide me on how to solve this? If it does deal with Chebyshev, can someone explain in detail how to get the inequality out of the absolute value probability?










      share|cite|improve this question
















      Let X be a random variable with mean µ and variance $sigma^2$. Show that



      $E(X-mu)^4geq sigma^4$



      and use this to show that the kurtosis of $X$ is at least $-2$.




      This looks like a form of Chebyshev's equation:



      $P(|X-mu|geq a) leq frac{sigma^2}{a^2}$



      But does not relate the inequality in the probability.



      I tried expanding $E(X-mu)^4$ out, but that seemed like a dead end.



      Can someone guide me on how to solve this? If it does deal with Chebyshev, can someone explain in detail how to get the inequality out of the absolute value probability?







      random-variables expected-value






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      edited 8 hours ago









      J.G.

      20.6k21933




      20.6k21933










      asked 8 hours ago









      user603569

      597




      597






















          2 Answers
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          up vote
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          down vote



          accepted










          Setting $Y=X-mu$ it must actually be shown that $mathbb EY^4geq(mathbb EY^2)^2$.



          This is a direct consequence of: $$mathbb EY^4-(mathbb EY^2)^2=mathsf{Var}Y^2geq0$$






          share|cite|improve this answer




























            up vote
            2
            down vote













            You don't need Chebyshev. Note that $E(X-mu)^4=operatorname{Var}(X-mu)^2+E^2(X-mu)^2$. The first term $ge 0$; the second is $sigma^4$.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















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              2 Answers
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              active

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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

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              active

              oldest

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              active

              oldest

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              up vote
              3
              down vote



              accepted










              Setting $Y=X-mu$ it must actually be shown that $mathbb EY^4geq(mathbb EY^2)^2$.



              This is a direct consequence of: $$mathbb EY^4-(mathbb EY^2)^2=mathsf{Var}Y^2geq0$$






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                3
                down vote



                accepted










                Setting $Y=X-mu$ it must actually be shown that $mathbb EY^4geq(mathbb EY^2)^2$.



                This is a direct consequence of: $$mathbb EY^4-(mathbb EY^2)^2=mathsf{Var}Y^2geq0$$






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  3
                  down vote



                  accepted







                  up vote
                  3
                  down vote



                  accepted






                  Setting $Y=X-mu$ it must actually be shown that $mathbb EY^4geq(mathbb EY^2)^2$.



                  This is a direct consequence of: $$mathbb EY^4-(mathbb EY^2)^2=mathsf{Var}Y^2geq0$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  Setting $Y=X-mu$ it must actually be shown that $mathbb EY^4geq(mathbb EY^2)^2$.



                  This is a direct consequence of: $$mathbb EY^4-(mathbb EY^2)^2=mathsf{Var}Y^2geq0$$







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 8 hours ago









                  drhab

                  95.6k543126




                  95.6k543126






















                      up vote
                      2
                      down vote













                      You don't need Chebyshev. Note that $E(X-mu)^4=operatorname{Var}(X-mu)^2+E^2(X-mu)^2$. The first term $ge 0$; the second is $sigma^4$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer

























                        up vote
                        2
                        down vote













                        You don't need Chebyshev. Note that $E(X-mu)^4=operatorname{Var}(X-mu)^2+E^2(X-mu)^2$. The first term $ge 0$; the second is $sigma^4$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer























                          up vote
                          2
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          2
                          down vote









                          You don't need Chebyshev. Note that $E(X-mu)^4=operatorname{Var}(X-mu)^2+E^2(X-mu)^2$. The first term $ge 0$; the second is $sigma^4$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          You don't need Chebyshev. Note that $E(X-mu)^4=operatorname{Var}(X-mu)^2+E^2(X-mu)^2$. The first term $ge 0$; the second is $sigma^4$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered 8 hours ago









                          J.G.

                          20.6k21933




                          20.6k21933






























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